“HP-UX 11i v3 Security Administration”, also known as HP0-P17 exam, is a HP certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 120 Q&As to your HP0-P17 Exam preparation. In the HP0-P17 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in HP Certification helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.

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Question: 1
After running /usr/sbin/pwck, the following output is displayed:
smbnull:*:101:101::/home/smbnull:/sbin/sh
Login directory not found

What should you do to tighten the security?

A. Nothing - it is a valid system user ID.
B. Nothing - it is used by CIFS/Samba to represent “nobody” with a positive UID.
C. Edit the /etc/passwd entry to specify a dummy login directory and a false login shell.
D. Delete it from /etc/passwd. Opensource Samba installs it by default and it is not required on
HP-UX.
Answer: C

Question: 2
Which chatr syntax enables buffer overflow protection on a per-binary basis?

A. chatr +b enable
B. chatr -es enable
C. chatr +es enable
D. chatr +bo enable
E. chatr +es default
Answer: C

Question: 3
What is the effect of the coreadm -e global-setid command?

A. edits the core dump file
B. reads and interprets the core dump file
C. enables the kernel for system crash dumps
D. enables setuid/setgid core dumps system wide
E. causes all running setuid programs to generate a core file
Answer: D

Question: 4
Identify ways HP Process Resource Manager (PRM) can protect a system against poorly
designed applications. (Select three.)

A. PRM can limit the amount of memory applications may consume.
B. PRM can limit the amount of swap space applications may consume.
C. PRM can limit the amount of disk bandwidth applications may consume.
D. PRM can limit the amount of CPU resources applications may consume.
E. PRM can limit the amount of network bandwidth applications may consume.
F. PRM can limit the number of inbound network connections to configured applications.
Answer: A, C, D

Question: 5
What is a limitation of HP Process Resource Manager (PRM) as it applies to Denial of Service
(DoS) attacks?

A. Processes must be grouped before they can be managed.
B. PRM does not perform memory capping; only entitlement and selection.
C. PRM only applies to time-shared processes; real-time processes are not affected.
D. PRM requires a separate configuration file for time-shared and real-time processes.
Answer: C

Question: 6
After running kctune executable_stack=2, what happens if MyProg executes code from the
stack?

A. MyProg continues running without incident.
B. MyProg is killed before a single instruction can be executed.
C. MyProg continues, but logs a warning to /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log.
D. MyProg continues, but a warning message is logged to the kernel message buffer.
Answer: D

Question: 7
You used the dmesg command to display the warning shown in the exhibit.

Which kernel parameter setting makes this warning message appear?

A. kill_overflow is set to 1
B. exc_stack_code is set to 0
C. buffer_overflow is set to 1
D. executable_stack is set to 0
Answer: D

Question: 8
Which benefits does chroot provide to an application from a security perspective? (Select three.)

A. forces an application to start in a specified directory
B. allows the users to do a cd above the specified directory
C. prevents an application from starting in a specified directory
D. prevents the users from doing a cd above the specified directory
E. allows the users of the application access to the directory and the directories below it
F. prevents the users of the application access to the directory and the directories below it
Answer: A, D, E

* certpaper hp HP0-P17 Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As
* Updated: October 30th , 2008.

“networked storage-ns installation and troubleshooting exam”, also known as e20-665 exam, is a EMC certification.

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1. Which protocol does a Data Mover use to provide “share” access to Windows clients?
A.NFS
B.CIFS
C.NTFS
D.SNMP
Answer : B

2.What must be verified when connecting a Celerra NS Gateway to a CLARiiON array?
A.PowerPath is enabled
B.PowerPath is disabled
C.Access Logix is enabled
D.Access Logix is disabled
Answer : C

3.How many Celerra/CLARiiON LUNs are reserved for the control volumes?
A.2
B.4
C.6
D.8
Answer : C

4.What will the upgrd_ckvX.bin script turn off when run prior to upgrading NAS code?
A.CAVA
B.Usermapper
C.TimeFinder/FS mirroring
D.SnapSure schedule scripts
Answer : C

5.Following an installation what can be done to test if the Celerra is ready for administrative connectivity?
A.Use SSH to log on to the Data Mover
B.PING all Data Movers from a remote network
C.PING all Data Movers from the Control Station
D.Connect to Celerra Manager using a web browser
Answer : D

6.At which network layer does a broadcast storm occur?
A.Network
B.Physical
C.Data Link
D.Transport
Answer : C

7.At which layer of the OSI model do routing problems occur?
A.Network
B.Physical
C.Data Link
D.Transport
Answer : A

8.After the initial configuration of the Celerra, all of the clients can connect to the Data Mover. However, the
network performance is extremely poor. What is the most likely cause?
A.Misconfigured router
B.Invalid VLAN membership
C.Speed and Duplex mismatch
D.Too many members in the VLAN
Answer : C

certpaper emc e20-665 Questions and Answers : 111 questions
Updated: 2008-2-15

“CCEA XP MetaFrame Secure Access Manager 2.2: Administration”, also known as1Y0-722 exam, is a Citrix certification. Preparing for the 1Y0-722 exam? Searching 1Y0-722 Test Questions, 1Y0-722 Practice Exam, 1Y0-722 Dumps? With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 63 questions to your 1Y0-722 Exam preparation. In the 1Y0-722 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CCEA XP helping to ready you for your successful Citrix Certification. Questions and Answers : 63 questions Updated: 2008-2-19 Market Price: $119.99 Member Price: $59.99

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1.Which statement is true?

A: Active Directory does not support the importing of users.
B: Importing users from Active Directory requires the same process as importing users from Windows NT.
C: Active Directory users from a domain other than the access server farm domain cannot be imported into an access center.
D: Active Directory users from another domain must be imported into the domain of the access server farm before being imported into an access center.
Correct Answers: B

2.The indexing server search engine will return folder index content links to a user only if that user has permission to access that content. Which access control mechanism does the index server search engine use to accomplish this?

A: Checking the files configured in the access center user’s primary role with each file that is indexed .
B: Checking the files configured in the Search CDA’s Advanced Configuration Wizard with each file that is indexed .
C: Checking the access center user’s logged-on credentials against the ACL associated with each file that is indexed.
D: Checking the access center user’s logged-on credentials against the index server search engine service account credentials .
Correct Answers: C

3.If there are multiple MetaFrame Presentation server farms configured, how can the administrator guarantee that applications will be used to launch published content from particular farms? (Choose two.)

A:Disable “List server farm resources in access center menus” for undesirable farms.
B:Move the desired farms to the top of the prioritization list on the Published Resources tab.
C:Assign the desired farm a value of 10 in the prioritization list on the Published Resources tab.
D:Applications from MetaFrame server farms are chosen to launch published content based on the alphabetical order of the farms.
Correct Answers: A, B

4.Which file type is associated with exported access center packages?

A: .XML
B: .EXE
C: .HTM
D: .CAB
Correct Answers: D

5.Scenario: An administrator is using the Access Management Console to manage an access server farm called “Main Access.” The Agent and Web Servers for the “Main Access” access server farm are installed on the same system as the console. What will happen if the administrator attempts to manage another access server farm from the console in the above scenario?

A: The access server farm configuration wizard will launch.
B: The administrator will be prompted to enter credentials for the other access server farm.
C: An error message indicating that the console must be installed remotely to access the other server farm is displayed.
D: An error message indicating that the remote access server farm must be imported into the existing access server farm to obtain access from the console.
Correct Answers: C

6.For an implementation of MetaFrame Secure Access Manager that includes Secure Gateway, which three can be used when specifying access to internal web servers in the Access Management Console? (Choose three.)

A:IP addresses
B:NETBIOS names
C:Agent server name
D:XML Communication port
E:Fully-qualified domain names
F:TCP relay server communication port
Correct Answers: A, B, E

7.How does selecting the “Failover sequence for unavailable servers” option impact the communication between MetaFrame Secure Access Manager and MetaFrame Presentation Server farms?

A: MetaFrame Secure Access Manager will randomly route each Citrix XML service to a different server in the priority list. If an error occurs while communicating with a server, that server will be bypassed for specified length of time.
B: The priority list will be used to route requests from the access center. If an error occurs while communicating with the first server in the list, that server will be bypassed for a specified length of time and an attempt will be made to communicate with the next server on the list.
C: The priority list will be used to route requests from the access center. If an error occurs while communicating with any server in the list, the requestwill be deleted from the list. The administrator will need to re-add the failed server manually to the list once the error is corrected.
D: MetaFrame Secure Access Manager will route each Citrix XML service to a different server based on the sequence in the priority list. If an error occurs while communicating with a server, all communication between that server farm and the access center will stop for a specified time.
Correct Answers: B

8.How is an access server farm identified?

A: By the IP address of the primary server
B: By the machine name of the primary server
C: By the name of the first access center created
D: By the name of the domain where the access server farm resides
Correct Answers: B

9.An administrator has configured the company access center to allow users permission to configure ICA options.

For the above scenario, which three ICA options can be configured in the access center by the user?(Choose three.)

A:Font size
B:Window size
C:Sound settings
D:Printer mapping
E:Window color depth
Correct Answers: B, C, E

10.What can be used to balance Web Servers in a MetaFrame Secure Access Manager implementation?

A: Access Server Load Balancer
B: Microsoft Network Load Balancing
C: Microsoft IIS Administration Service
D: Windows NT Load Balancing Service
Correct Answers: B
# certpaper citrix 1Y0-722 Questions and Answers : 63 questions
# Updated: October 29th , 2008.

BCMSN - Building Converged Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks : 642-812 Exam

“Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks”, also known as 642-812 exam, is a Cisco certification.

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You are the network administrator at Certkiller and switch CK1 is configured as
shown below:
Interface gigethernet 0/1
Switchport mode trunk
Switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
Switchport trunk native vlan 5
If untagged frames are arriving on interface gigethernet 0/1 of CK1 , which of the following statement are correct?
A. Untagged frames are automatically assumed to be in VLAN 5.
B. Untagged frames are defaulted to VLAN 1 traffic.
C. Untagged frames are dropped because all packets are tagged when dot1q trunked.
D. Untagged frames are determined on the other switch
E. Untagged frames are not supported on 802.1Q trunks.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Each physical port has a parameter called PVID. Every 802.1Q port is assigned a PVID
value that is of its native VLAN ID (default is VLAN 1). All untagged frames are
assigned to the LAN specified in the PVID parameter. When a tagged frame is received
by a port, the tag is respected. If the frame is untagged, the value contained in the PVID
is considered as a tag. All untagged frames will be assigned to the native VLAN. The
native VLAN is 1 by default, but in this case the native VLAN is configured as VLAN 5
so choice A is correct.

QUESTION 49:

If you were to set up a VLAN trunk over a Fast Ethernet link on switch CK1 , which
trunk mode would you set the local port to on CK1 if you wanted it to respond to
requests from its link partner ( CK2 ) and become a trunk?

A. Auto
B. Negotiate
C. Designate
D. No negotiate

Answer: A

Explanation:
Only ports in desirable and auto mode will negotiate a channel (either desirable-auto or
desirable-desirable). Ports in on mode will only form a functional channel with other
ports in on mode (they will not negotiate a channel with ports in desirable or auto mode).
Reference: Cisco, Troubleshooting Tips
http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/lan/cat5000/trbl_ja.htm
QUESTION 50:

Which of the following trunking modes are unable to request their ports to convert
their links into trunk links? (Select all that apply)

A. Negotiate
B. Designate
C. No negotiate
D. Auto
E. Manual
F. Off

Answer: C, D

Explanation:
Auto is a trunking mode but does not actively negotiate a trunk. It requires opposite side
to be trunk or desirable, and will only respond to requests from the other trunk link.
No-negotiate will configure the link to be unable to dynamically become a trunk; since
no requests will be sent it will not respond to requests from other trunk links from a
different switch.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, E, F: These choices are wrong because they are not valid trunking modes

QUESTION 51:

ISL is being configured on a Certkiller switch. Which of the following choices are
true regarding the ISL protocol? (Select two)
A. It can be used between Cisco and non-Cisco switch devices.
B. It calculates a new CRC field on top of the existing CRC field.
C. It adds 4 bytes of protocol-specific information to the original Ethernet frame.
D. It adds 30 bytes of protocol-specific information to the original Ethernet frame.

Answer: B, D

Explanation:
ISL adds a total of 30bytes to the Ethernet frame. A 26 byte header (10bytes identifies
the VLAN ID) and a 4 byte trailer (containing a separate CRC).
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is incorrect because ISL is Cisco proprietary and can only be used on Cisco
devices. For configuring a trunk to a non-Cisco switch, 802.1Q encapsulation should be
used.
C: This is incorrect because it is contradictory to D. 30 byes are added with ISL, not 4
bytes. This choice describes what is used in 802.1Q frames, not ISL
QUESTION 52:

You are the network administrator tasked with designing a switching solution for
the Certkiller network. Which of the following statements describing trunk links are
INCORRECT? (Select all that apply)

A. The trunk link belongs to a specific VLAN.
B. Multiple trunk links are used to connect multiple end user devices.
C. A trunk link only supports native VLAN.
D. Trunk links use 802.10 to identify a VLAN.
E. The native VLAN of the trunk link is the VLAN that the trunk uses for untagged
packets.

Answer: A, B, C, D

Explanation:
A trunk is a point-to-point link that transmits and receives traffic between switches or
between switches and routers. Trunks carry the traffic of multiple VLANs and can extend
VLANs across an entire network. 100BaseT and Gigabit Ethernet trunks use Cisco ISL
(the default protocol) or industry-standard IEEE 802.1Q to carry traffic for multiple
VLANs over a single link. Frames received from users in the administratively-defined
VLANs are identified or tagged for transmission to other devices. Based on rules you

define, a unique identifier (the tag) is inserted in each frame header before it is
forwarded. The tag is examined and understood by each device before any broadcasts or
transmission to other switches, routers, or end stations. When the frame reaches the last
switch or router, the tag is removed before the frame is transmitted to the target end
station.
Incorrect Answers:

Questions and Answers : 346 Q&As
Updated: 2008-09-11.

“Adobe Acrobat 7.0 Professional Print Production ACE Exam”, also known as 9A0-041 exam, is a Adobe certification.

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Updated: 2008-2-25

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2.Which mark is necessary if your project includes bleeds?
A. trim
B. bleed
C. registration
D. page information
Answer: A

3.You are creating color separations at output and need to convert a spot color to 4-color process. What should
you do?
A. You choose Advanced > Separation Preview and then select the appropriate color name.
B. You do nothing. Spot color conversion needs to be done before the PDF document is created.
C. You choose Document > Preflight, select List all objects not 4c from the Profiles dialog box, and click Analyze.
D. In the Advance Print Setup dialog box, you choose Separations from the Color pull-down menu and then select
Convert All Spots to Process in the Ink Manager.
Answer: D

4.You are creating an Adobe PDF document from a Microsoft Word document. Users will print the PDF document
on laser and ink jet printers. You want to maintain print quality while minimizing the file size. From Word, you
choose Adobe PDF > Change Conversion Settings. Which option should you choose from the Conversion Settings
pull-down menu in the PDFMaker Settings panel?
A. Standard
B. High Quality
C. Press Quality
D. Smallest File Size
Answer: A

5.You create a preflight profile that checks a PDF document to see if a custom halftone setting is used and flags it
if an error is found. Which type of PDF document will be flagged with an error?
A. one that uses any spot color
B. one with a process duotone in it
C. one that contains grayscale data
D. one with smooth shade gradients in it
Answer: D

6.You want to change the section of a PDF document that is being displayed in the Loupe Tool window while
maintaining the current magnification factor. What should you do?
A. move the rectangular marquee displayed in the document
B. move the rectangular marquee displayed within the Loupe Tool window
C. right-click (Windows) or Control-click (Mac OS) in the Loupe Tool window; scroll the display within the
Loupe Tool window
D. hold down the spacebar while clicking in the Loupe Tool window to drag the display within the Loupe Tool
window
Answer: A

7.You have digitally signed a PDF document. Which restrictions apply to other users who open the file in Adobe
Acrobat Professional and attempt to make changes in the document?
A. They are UNABLE to print the document.
B. They are UNABLE to digitally sign the document.
C. There are NO restrictions, but your signature is rendered as invalid.
D. There are NO restrictions, but your signature is rendered as changed.
Answer: C

Vendor: HP
Exam Code: HP0-729
Exam Name: ProCurve Secure Mobility Solutions 6.41

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QUESTION 1
At a customer site, you have defined VLAN 128 on a ProCurve Switch 5300xl and on a
connected Access Point 530. You must now configure an Access Profile in Identity Driven
Manager that will assign Marketing users to this VLAN. However, the VLAN is not listed among
the choices for the Access Profile. Which step is necessary to make the VLAN available?

A. Define the AP 530 as a Location.
B. Perform a rediscovery of the switch.
C. Define the VLAN as a Network Resource.
D. Import Marketing users from Active Directory.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which applications must be hosted on the same computer to enable ProCurve Manager
Plus/Identity Driven Manager to function in a Windows environment? (Select two.)

A. PCM+ server
B. DHCP server
C. Identity Driven Manager
D. Internet Authentication Service
E. Active Directory domain controller

Answer: A, C

QUESTION 3
At a customer site, you must configure Identity Driven Manager to enforce access policies for
users who will use 802.1X authentication to connect through an Ethernet port on a ProCurve
Switch 5300xl. Where can you enter the RADIUS shared secret?

A. CLI of the Switch 5300xl
B. network setup for client computers
C. Remote Access Policy on RADIUS server
D. Location setting in Identity Driven Manager

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
At a customer site where PCM+/IDM is deployed, 50 new users are added to Active Directory
groups already imported into IDM. When will these users appear in IDM?

A. when PCM+/IDM performs auto-discovery
B. when the IDM RADIUS Agent polls Active Directory
C. when the users are authenticated through RADIUS
D. when the IDM Access Policy is deployed to the realm

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
In Identity Driven Manager, which object contains the Time, Location, and System parameters?

A. Identity Profile
B. Access Profile
C. Access Policy Group
D. Network Resource Access Rule

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
In Identity Driven Manager, which user-defined object identifies specific switch ports and access
points where users connect to the network?

A. Location
B. Access Profile
C. Connection Profile
D. Network Resource

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
At a customer site, a technician creates a new Sales group in Active Directory and adds 20 new
users to the group. When the technician imports the users into IDM, they are all assigned to the
Default Access Policy Group. What is the cause of this assignment?

A. The technician did not include the Sales group in the import.
B. The technician did deploy the policy to the realm after importing users.
C. The technician did not enable the IDM RADIUS Agent before importing users.
D. The technician did not create a Sales Access Policy Group before importing users.

Answer: A

Exam Number/Code: 642-532
Exam Name:Securing Networks Using Intrusion Prevention Systems Exam (IPS)
VUE Code: 642-532
Exam Language(s): English

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Exam Number/Code: 640-863
Exam Name:Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
VUE Code: 640-863
Exam Language(s): English

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CCIE Voice Written : 350-030 Exam

Exam Number/Code: 350-030
Exam Name: CCIE Voice Written
VUE Code: 350-030
Questions Type: Single choice, Multiple choice, Simulate,
Question Numbers of Real-exam: 100 questions

Exam : Cisco 350­-030

Title :

CCIE Voice Exam

Update : Demo

1.Which of the following statements outline the correct way to implement a non­standard softkey
template?
A.Select a softkey template? copy the template and rename it? insert it? modify the template and update the changes.
B.Select a softkey template? rename it? modify it and update the changes.
C.Select the default softkey template, rename it? insert it? modify it and update the changes. D.Select add softkey template, name it? update it? modify the template and update the changes. Correct:A
2.Which port(s) must be opened on an IOS firewall to allow successful MGCP (Media Gateway Control Protocol) message exchanges between a CallManager and an IOS MGCP PRI gateway? A.TCP 2000 and TCP 2002
B.TCP 2427 and UDP 2428
C.UDP 2427
D.UDP 2427 and UDP 2428
E.UDP 2427 and TCP 2428
Correct:E

“CCIE Voice Written”, also known as 350-030 exam, is a Cisco certification.
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CCIE SP Content Networking ENU : 350-026 Exam

Exam Number/Code: 350-026
Exam Name: CCIE SP Content Networking ENU

Exam : Cisco 350-­026

Title :

CCIE SP Content Networking ENU

Update : Demo

1.To maintain schema­consistency in an LDAP Directory Information Tree (DIT), the LDAP
standard specifies that:
A.The client first downloads the DIT schema from the server and then makes sure every request it sends conforms to the schema? The server therefore doesn’t have to check DIT for consistency
B.The operator periodically scans the DIT to check that the schema is not violated, and manually corrects any inconsistencies caused by clients
C.The server periodically scans the DIT to check that the schema is not violated, and sends a notification
to the operator when it finds an inconsistency caused by clients
D.The server periodically converts the DIT to an SQL database? Schema­checking is done by the SQL
engine and then the database is converted back to a DIT
E.The server checks every client operation for schema consistency, and ignores requests that would result in a DIT inconsistency
Correct:E
2.Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. The diagram shows an L2 switched campus. Switch X is the STP root and switch Y is the standby root. How many of the links in the diagram will be placed in blocking mode by STP?

A.6
B.7
C.12
D.13
E.18
F.19
Correct:E
3.In ACNS 5.X Content Delivery Network what is the purpose of defining a root Content Engine for
a channel?
A.This Content Engine retrieves content from other Content Engines within the CDN.
B.This Content Engine is used by the administrator to manage the Content Delivery Network.

C.This Content Engine downloads the content from the origin server and distributes the content to all the
Content Engines that belong to the Channel.
D.This Content Engine downloads the content from the Content Distribution Manager and distributes the content to all the Content Engines that belong to the Channel.
E.None of the above
Correct:C

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